Book 3 AMRIT · Mock 15 answer key
Mock 15: every answer explained.
Passage 1
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The issuance of contempt notices by constitutional courts represents an inherent judicial power designed to uphold the administration of justice and maintain public confidence in the legal system. Derived from constitutional provisions empowering the Supreme Court and High Courts as courts of record, contempt jurisdiction allows judges to penalize actions that disrespect judicial authority or obstruct court proceedings. Under statutory frameworks, law establishes a clear distinction between civil and criminal contempt based on the nature of the infraction. Civil contempt refers to willful disobedience of any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other process of a court, or a willful breach of an undertaking given to a court. The primary objective of civil contempt proceedings is compensatory and remedial, seeking to enforce compliance with judicial orders to protect private rights established by litigation. Conversely, criminal contempt encompasses the publication of any matter or the doing of any act that scandalizes or lowers the authority of any court, prejudices or interferes with the due course of judicial proceedings, or obstructs the administration of justice. Criminal contempt carries a punitive purpose aimed at deterring public defiance and preserving the institutional authority of the judiciary. While civil contempt focuses on private non-compliance with explicit directives, criminal contempt addresses broader public acts that erode institutional credibility. To prevent arbitrary exercise of this power, constitutional jurisprudence mandates that contempt notices strictly adhere to procedural due process and natural justice principles.
Who currently serves as the Chief Justice of India (CJI), heading the Supreme Court of India and presiding over its constitutional proceedings?
- Correct answer: Justice Sanjiv Khanna
- Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
- Justice B.R. Gavai
- Justice Surya Kant
Why: Justice Sanjiv Khanna serves as the Chief Justice of India, heading the Supreme Court and presiding over its constitutional benches.
Who currently holds the constitutional position of Attorney General for India, representing the Union executive and assisting constitutional courts in sensitive contempt and legal proceedings?
- Correct answer: R. Venkataramani
- Tushar Mehta
- K.K. Venugopal
- Mukul Rohatgi
Why: R. Venkataramani serves as the Attorney General for India under Article 76 of the Constitution, representing the Union in apex judicial proceedings.
Under Article 129 of the Constitution of India, which judicial body is explicitly declared to be a "court of record" possessing all the powers of such a court, including the power to punish for contempt of itself?
- Correct answer: The Supreme Court of India
- High Courts of India
- The Law Commission of India
- The Central Administrative Tribunal
Why: Article 129 explicitly declares the Supreme Court to be a court of record possessing power to punish for contempt of itself.
Under Article 215 of the Constitution of India, which courts are explicitly designated as "courts of record" with statutory authority to punish for contempt of themselves?
- Correct answer: High Courts
- District Courts
- Supreme Court of India
- Tribunals established under Article 323A
Why: Article 215 of the Constitution declares every High Court to be a court of record possessing inherent powers to punish for contempt of itself.
In which landmark 2020 case did the Supreme Court of India exercise its criminal contempt jurisdiction under Article 129 in response to tweets criticizing the judicial leadership?
- Correct answer: In re: Prashant Bhushan & Anr.
- Subrata Roy Sahara v. Union of India
- Vijay Kurle & Ors. v. State of Maharashtra
- Arundhati Roy Contempt Case
Why: In In re: Prashant Bhushan & Anr. (2020), the Supreme Court exercised its criminal contempt powers under Article 129 regarding tweets on the judiciary.
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted by Parliament based on the recommendations of which expert committee appointed in 1961?
- Correct answer: H.N. Sanyal Committee
- Law Commission 14th Report
- Malimath Committee
- Sarkaria Commission
Why: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was drafted based on the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee set up in 1961.
Passage 2
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The Supreme Court of India initiated constitutional examination into the statutory provisions of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, issuing notices to the Union Government regarding constitutional challenges mounted by press associations, civil society groups, and investigative journalists. The batch of petitions contends that the regulatory architecture fails to balance individual informational privacy against fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution, particularly regarding freedom of speech, investigative journalism, and democratic transparency. Central to the legal challenge is the statutory omission of explicit journalistic exemptions and the controversial amendment to the Right to Information Act. Petitioners argue that subjecting media platforms to strict notice, verifiable consent, and compulsory erasure mandates creates an operational pre-censorship regime that threatens core newsroom functions and public interest reporting. Furthermore, legal scholars contend that eliminating the public interest override provision from transparency laws shields public functionaries from accountability, thereby eroding the fundamental right to know. During preliminary hearings, constitutional benches emphasized the imperative to harmonize individual privacy rights under Article 21 with press freedoms under Article 19. While refusing to issue an interim stay on the statutory framework, the apex court observed that institutional stakeholders must collaborate to establish clear regulatory boundaries that prevent misuse without crippling investigative journalism. The upcoming constitutional determination remains critical to defining the operational limits of state surveillance, data protection fiduciaries, and the fourth estate.
Who currently serves as the Union Minister of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in the Government of India, overseeing the implementation of data protection frameworks?
- Correct answer: Ashwini Vaishnaw
- Rajeev Chandrasekhar
- Jyotiraditya Scindia
- Dharmendra Pradhan
Why: Ashwini Vaishnaw serves as the Union Minister of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in the Government of India.
Who currently serves as the Chairperson of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI), established under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act?
- Correct answer: Union IT Secretary (ex-officio / designated authority)
- Chief Information Commissioner
- Chairperson of TRAI
- Director of CERT-In
Why: The Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) is headed by a designated Chairperson appointed by the Union Government under the DPDP Act 2023.
In which year was the landmark K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India judgment delivered by a unanimous nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court, affirming privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21?
- Correct answer: 2017
- 2015
- 2019
- 2021
Why: K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India was delivered in August 2017, declaring the right to privacy a fundamental right under Article 21.
The Right to Information (RTI) Act, which was amended by the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, was enacted by the Parliament of India in which year?
- Correct answer: 2005
- 2002
- 2008
- 2010
Why: The landmark Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in 2005.
Under the Constitution of India, freedom of the press is implicitly guaranteed under which specific clause of Fundamental Rights?
- Correct answer: Article 19(1)(a)
- Article 19(1)(g)
- Article 21
- Article 14
Why: Freedom of the press in India is an implicit fundamental right derived from freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, what is the statutory maximum financial penalty that the Data Protection Board can impose on a data fiduciary for a significant personal data breach?
- Correct answer: ₹250 Crore
- ₹100 Crore
- ₹500 Crore
- ₹50 Crore
Why: Under the Schedule to the DPDP Act, 2023, failure to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent personal data breaches carries a penalty up to ₹250 crore.
Passage 3
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The Supreme Court of India set aside a controversial single-judge order of the Allahabad High Court, unequivocally ruling that physical acts such as groping and loosening or pulling a woman's lower garment string constitute a clear attempt to commit rape. Overturning the lower bench's narrow interpretation, the apex court reinstated stringent criminal charges and emphasized that the judiciary must avoid insensitivity when evaluating sexual violence. The legal controversy originated when the High Court downgraded charges against an accused, observing that acts of grabbing breasts and untying garment fasteners did not cross the threshold into a full attempt to commit penetrative sexual assault. Initiating suo motu proceedings following public outrage and interventions by legal advocates, the apex court bench observed that such restrictive reasoning misconstrued the critical legal distinction between mere preparation and execution. The justices noted that forced physical contact coupled with disrobing demonstrates explicit intent and active execution, which constitutes a complete attempt under criminal statutory provisions. Constitutional scholars and human rights advocates lauded the ruling for correcting a dangerous precedent that risked trivializing sexual aggression. Furthermore, the top court issued broader directives instructing judicial training institutions to formulate mandatory gender-sensitivity guidelines for trial judges and magistrate courts. By reaffirming that judicial evaluation must reflect empathy, dignity, and standard evidentiary logic, the Supreme Court strengthened constitutional protections safeguarding bodily autonomy and the integrity of criminal proceedings.
Which statutory penal code enacted in 2023 replaced the historical Indian Penal Code (IPC) 1860, defining offenses against women and attempts to commit sexual offenses in India?
- Correct answer: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
- Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023
- Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023
- Code of Criminal Procedure, 2023
Why: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the colonial Indian Penal Code, 1860, codifying offenses and attempts against human body.
Who currently serves as the Union Minister of Women and Child Development in the Government of India?
- Correct answer: Annpurna Devi
- Smriti Irani
- Nirmala Sitharaman
- Shobha Karandlaje
Why: Annpurna Devi serves as the Union Minister of Women and Child Development in the Government of India.
Under the Indian Penal Code (now incorporated under BNS), which section governs the general offense of "Attempt" to commit offenses punishable with imprisonment where no express provision is made?
- Correct answer: Section 511 of IPC (Section 62 of BNS)
- Section 376 of IPC
- Section 354 of IPC
- Section 307 of IPC
Why: Section 511 of the IPC (corresponding to Section 62 of BNS) governs punishment for attempting to commit offenses punishable with imprisonment.
Which landmark Supreme Court judgment in 1997 laid down comprehensive guidelines to prevent and address sexual harassment of women at the workplace prior to statutory enactments?
- Correct answer: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan
- Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (Mathura Rape Case)
- Independent Thought v. Union of India
- State of Punjab v. Gurmit Singh
Why: Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997) laid down binding judicial guidelines to prevent sexual harassment at the workplace.
Which statutory commission was established in 1992 under an Act of Parliament to safeguard women's legal and constitutional rights in India?
- Correct answer: National Commission for Women (NCW)
- National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
- National Law Commission
- Central Social Welfare Board
Why: The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
In which year were sweeping statutory amendments introduced to Indian criminal law following the recommendation of the Justice J.S. Verma Committee report on sexual violence?
- Correct answer: 2013
- 2011
- 2016
- 2018
Why: The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was enacted following the recommendations of the Justice J.S. Verma Committee.
Passage 4
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The official release of the World Happiness Report 2026 underscores a decisive evolution in comparative public policy, elevating subjective well-being data into mainstream multilateral economic assessments. Published through interdisciplinary academic research centers and global survey partnerships, the comprehensive study evaluates national population satisfaction to offer policymakers empirical alternatives to traditional gross domestic product metrics. The analytical foundation of the World Happiness Report 2026 relies on representative survey responses where citizens evaluate their overall quality of life. Rather than utilizing static institutional indexes, international researchers apply econometric modeling across key explanatory variables, including real per capita income, healthy life expectancy, social support systems, personal freedom, generosity, and public institutional trust. Crucially, the publication highlights how digital environments, evolving communication platforms, and changing social connectivity patterns directly influence psychological well-being across diverse demographic cohorts. Socio-economic policy analysts stress that integrating well-being metrics into governance frameworks addresses structural gaps left by conventional growth indicators. Findings from the report demonstrate that strong social safety nets, robust institutional transparency, and high civic trust correlate directly with broader societal resilience against global economic volatility. As developing and developed economies navigate complex demographic transitions and technological shifts, the operational insights contained within the World Happiness Report 2026 provide vital guidance for aligning public investments with long-term human flourishing.
Which international multilateral organization publishes the annual World Happiness Report in partnership with the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)?
- Correct answer: United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (UN SDSN)
- United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
- World Economic Forum (WEF)
- World Health Organization (WHO)
Why: The UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (UN SDSN) publishes the annual World Happiness Report analyzing global quality of life metrics.
Which country was ranked as the happiest nation in the world for the eighth consecutive year in the World Happiness Report series leading into 2026?
- Correct answer: Finland
- Denmark
- Iceland
- Norway
Why: Finland has consistently maintained its position as the world's happiest country for eight consecutive years in global happiness rankings.
What was India's official ranking in the World Happiness Report 2026 index among surveyed global nations?
- Correct answer: 126th
- 108th
- 136th
- 94th
Why: India was ranked 126th among 143 surveyed nations in the global happiness index rankings.
Which Himalayan South Asian nation famously pioneered the holistic socio-economic metric known as "Gross National Happiness" (GNH) in place of traditional GDP?
- Correct answer: Bhutan
- Nepal
- Sri Lanka
- Maldives
Why: Bhutan pioneered Gross National Happiness (GNH) under King Jigme Singye Wangchuck in 1972 as a holistic development philosophy.
In what year was the first official World Happiness Report published by the United Nations to support the UN High-Level Meeting on Well-being and Happiness?
- Correct answer: 2012
- 2010
- 2015
- 2018
Why: The first World Happiness Report was published in April 2012 in support of the UN High-Level Meeting on Happiness and Well-being.
Under the Constitution of India, which Article under the Directive Principles of State Policy explicitly requires the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health?
- Correct answer: Article 47
- Article 39
- Article 43
- Article 41
Why: Article 47 of the Directive Principles requires the State to raise the level of nutrition and standard of living and improve public health.
Passage 5
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The publication of the Global Terrorism Index 2026 highlights a significant transformation in global security dynamics, demonstrating a overall drop in terrorism fatalities alongside an escalating concentration of violent acts within fragile, conflict-affected regions. Issued annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace, the comparative assessment evaluates the operational impact of non-state violent actors across global jurisdictions through weighted indicators measuring fatalities, injuries, hostage incidents, and property damage. Central to the findings of the Global Terrorism Index 2026 is the persistent vulnerability of borderlands and zones of active armed conflict. According to the study, an overwhelming majority of worldwide terrorism fatalities continue to occur in conflict sectors, where institutional governance gaps, porous international boundaries, and state weakness allow insurgent factions to maintain operational sanctuaries. Sub-Saharan Africa and regional conflict corridors remain major focal points of activity, even as older operational epicenters experience shifts in total incident frequency. Concurrently, the index notes a sharp rise in lone-actor incidents and radicalization among minor demographics across Western nations, complicating traditional intelligence-led counter-terrorism measures. Security experts emphasize that addressing modern non-state threats requires moving beyond unilateral military responses toward multilateral intelligence sharing, border security integration, and institutional capacity-building. By providing empirical metrics on non-state violence, the Global Terrorism Index 2026 serves as an essential analytical framework for guiding international security policy, regional stabilization initiatives, and counter-radicalization strategies.
Which international independent research organization headquartered in Sydney, Australia, produces and releases the annual Global Terrorism Index (GTI)?
- Correct answer: Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP)
- Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI)
- International Institute for Strategic Studies (IISS)
- Centre for Policy Research (CPR)
Why: The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), headquartered in Sydney, Australia, produces the annual Global Terrorism Index.
According to the Global Terrorism Index 2026, which region in Africa recorded the highest concentration of terrorism-related fatalities worldwide?
- Correct answer: The Sahel region
- The Horn of Africa
- Southern Africa
- The Maghreb
Why: The Sahel region in Sub-Saharan Africa accounts for the largest proportion of terrorism-related deaths globally according to the GTI report.
Which country was identified as the nation most impacted by terrorism in the Global Terrorism Index 2026 ranking?
- Correct answer: Burkina Faso
- Afghanistan
- Syria
- Somalia
Why: Burkina Faso emerged as the nation most impacted by terrorism in recent GTI index evaluations.
Where is the permanent headquarters of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), the global watchdog monitoring counter-terrorist financing and anti-money laundering?
- Correct answer: Paris, France
- Geneva, Switzerland
- London, UK
- Vienna, Austria
Why: The permanent secretariat of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris, France.
In what year was the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) established by the G7 summit in Paris to combat money laundering and terrorist financing?
- Correct answer: 1989
- 1995
- 2001
- 2008
Why: FATF was established in 1989 by the G7 Summit held in Paris to develop policies to combat money laundering.
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, "Preventive detention for reasons connected with Security of a State, order in a State..." falls under which legislative list?
- Correct answer: Concurrent List (List III, Entry 3)
- Union List (List I, Entry 9)
- State List (List II)
- Residuary Powers
Why: Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, preventive detention for state security is listed under Entry 3 of List III (Concurrent List).
Passage 6
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Escalating military confrontations involving the United States, Israel, and Iran have intensified global legal debates regarding the limits of state sovereignty and military intervention. In justifying kinetic operations against Iranian military infrastructure, Allied command structures invoke Article 51 of the United Nations Charter, asserting an inherent right to individual and collective self-defense against imminent threat vectors and state-sponsored proxy networks. However, international legal scholars contend that invoking self-defense under Article 51 requires demonstrating a prior or genuinely imminent armed attack. The jurisprudence established by the International Court of Justice in the landmark Nicaragua versus United States determination remains central to evaluating these claims. In that ruling, the tribunal established a strict threshold between minor uses of force and grave armed attacks, while ruling that general financial, logistical, or armaments assistance to regional proxy militias does not automatically attribute their kinetic actions to the sponsor state under the effective control standard. Consequently, executing preemptive strikes against Iranian targets without clear evidence of direct, state-directed armed aggression risks breaching Article 2 of the United Nations Charter, which explicitly prohibits the threat or use of force against state sovereignty. Reconciling unilateral security imperatives with established customary international law demands adhering to strict necessity and proportionality principles. Without rigorous alignment with international judicial benchmarks, expansive interpretations of anticipatory self-defense undermine multilateral peace mechanisms and erode foundational statutory limits governing global conflict.
Who currently serves as the President of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) at The Hague?
- Correct answer: Nawaf Salam
- Joan Donoghue
- Abdulqawi Ahmed Yusuf
- Ronny Abraham
Why: Judge Nawaf Salam of Lebanon serves as the President of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) at The Hague.
Which Article of the United Nations Charter explicitly prohibits member states from the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state?
- Correct answer: Article 2(4)
- Article 51
- Article 24
- Article 33
Why: Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibits the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state.
In which landmark 1986 ICJ case did the court establish the "effective control" test for attributing non-state actor military actions to a sponsor state?
- Correct answer: Military and Paramilitary Activities in and against Nicaragua (Nicaragua v. United States of America)
- Corfu Channel Case (United Kingdom v. Albania)
- Oil Platforms Case (Islamic Republic of Iran v. United States of America)
- Armed Activities on the Territory of the Congo (Democratic Republic of the Congo v. Uganda)
Why: The ICJ established the "effective control" test in Nicaragua v. United States (1986) regarding state responsibility for proxy forces.
What is the capital city of Iran, where strategic administrative and defense headquarters are located?
- Correct answer: Tehran
- Isfahan
- Shiraz
- Tabriz
Why: Tehran is the capital city and political center of the Islamic Republic of Iran.
In what year was the Charter of the United Nations formally signed in San Francisco at the conclusion of the United Nations Conference on International Organization?
- Correct answer: 1945
- 1948
- 1950
- 1942
Why: The UN Charter was signed on June 26, 1945, at the San Francisco Conference and came into force on October 24, 1945.
Under the Constitution of India, which Article contained within the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honorable relations between nations?
- Correct answer: Article 51
- Article 48A
- Article 50
- Article 45
Why: Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to promote international peace, security, and respect for treaty obligations.
Passage 7
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The imperial enactment of the Indian Councils Act introduced fundamental structural changes to British colonial governance, expanding Indian participation in legislative assemblies while formally institutionalizing communal representation. Drafted under the administration of Secretary of State John Morley and Viceroy Lord Minto, the constitutional reforms aimed to pacify moderate nationalist demands following widespread political unrest without surrendering executive authority to popular majorities. Central to the legislative framework was the expansion of Central and Provincial Legislative Councils, alongside increased deliberative powers allowing members to discuss budgets and move resolutions. However, the most consequential innovation involved establishing separate electorates for Muslims, fulfilling representations made during earlier diplomatic petitions by community elites. Under this electoral mechanism, specific legislative seats were reserved exclusively for Muslim candidates, who were chosen solely by Muslim electors. This statutory arrangement granted weighted representation to minority constituencies based on socio-political considerations rather than numerical parity. Historiographers stress that while the reforms introduced limited parliamentary conventions, the statutory creation of identity-based franchise systems fundamentally fractured the anti-colonial national movement. By codifying religious affiliation as a foundational pillar of electoral politics, the colonial administration entrenched communal identity within constitutional structures. Although nationalist leaders criticized the scheme as a calculated divide-and-rule strategy designed to undermine unified resistance, the precedent of separate electorates institutionalized political communalism, profoundly shaping the constitutional trajectory and eventual territorial partition of the Indian subcontinent.
In which year was the Indian Councils Act, popularizing the Morley-Minto Reforms, enacted by the British Parliament?
- Correct answer: 1909
- 1892
- 1919
- 1935
Why: The Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) was enacted by the British Parliament in 1909.
Who served as the Viceroy of India during the drafting and implementation of the 1909 constitutional reforms?
- Correct answer: Lord Minto II
- Lord Curzon
- Lord Hardinge II
- Lord Morley
Why: Lord Minto II served as the Viceroy of India alongside Secretary of State John Morley during the 1909 reforms.
Which delegation of prominent Muslim leaders met Viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla in October 1906 to demand separate electorates for Muslims in legislative bodies?
- Correct answer: Shimla Deputation led by Aga Khan III
- Dacca Muslim Conference
- Khilafat Delegation
- All India Muslim Educational Committee
Why: The Shimla Deputation of October 1906, led by Aga Khan III, presented a memorandum demanding separate electorates for Muslims.
Who was the first Indian appointed to the Viceroy's Executive Council under the provisions of the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909?
- Correct answer: Satyendra Prasanna Sinha (Lord Sinha)
- Tej Bahadur Sapru
- Syed Ali Imam
- Romesh Chunder Dutt
Why: Satyendra Prasanna Sinha (Lord Sinha) was appointed as the Law Member, becoming the first Indian in the Viceroy's Executive Council under the 1909 reforms.
Which British constitutional act subsequently expanded the system of separate electorates to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans in 1919?
- Correct answer: Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919)
- Government of India Act, 1935
- Indian Councils Act, 1892
- Rowlatt Act, 1919
Why: The Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) extended separate electorates to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
Under the Constitution of India, which Article mandates a single general electoral roll for every constituency and explicitly prohibits disenfranchisement or exclusion on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or sex?
- Correct answer: Article 325
- Article 326
- Article 15
- Article 324
Why: Article 325 mandates a single general electoral roll for every constituency and prohibits exclusion on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex.
Which landmark article of the Constitution of India guarantees universal adult suffrage as the basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
- Correct answer: Article 326
- Article 324
- Article 325
- Article 17
Why: Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees universal adult suffrage for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
Passage 8
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Following extensive legislative deliberations and presidential assent, Gujarat became the second Indian state after Uttarakhand to formally adopt a statutory framework for the Uniform Civil Code. Grounded in the constitutional Directive Principles of State Policy, the legislative measure seeks to establish a common, secular legal framework replacing diverse personal laws governing civil affairs, including marriage, divorce, succession, and adoption across religious communities. The passage of the state enactment followed recommendations by a high-level expert committee task force that analyzed public consultations, socio-legal submissions, and customary practices. Central to the uniform law is the mandatory statutory registration of marriages and live-in relationships, alongside a complete prohibition on bigamy and arbitrary unilateral divorce practices. Additionally, the legislation secures equal succession and property inheritance rights for daughters, addressing historical gender disparities inherent in traditional customary codes. To respect socio-cultural diversity, statutory exemptions were explicitly incorporated to safeguard the customary rights of recognized tribal communities. Constitutional scholars highlight that while state-level enactments demonstrate progress toward fulfilling non-justiciable constitutional directives, statutory personal law standardization raises important legal questions regarding federal legislative competency and fundamental religious freedoms guaranteed under Article 25. By establishing uniform personal rights under civil jurisdiction, the state initiative serves as a pivotal precedent in modern Indian legal reform, balancing gender justice and institutional equality against regional socio-cultural diversity.
Which state became the very first in post-independence India to enact and operationalize a comprehensive Uniform Civil Code (UCC) bill before Gujarat's subsequent enactment?
- Correct answer: Uttarakhand
- Goa
- Assam
- Himachal Pradesh
Why: Uttarakhand became the first state in post-independence India to pass and implement a statutory Uniform Civil Code (UCC) bill.
Who chaired the high-level expert committee appointed by the state government to draft the Uniform Civil Code framework in Gujarat?
- Correct answer: Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai (or designated state panel head)
- Justice R.M. Lodha
- Justice B.S. Chauhan
- Justice K.T. Thomas
Why: Former Supreme Court judge Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai chaired the expert committee drafting the Uniform Civil Code framework.
Who currently serves as the Chief Minister of Gujarat, steering state legislative enactments?
- Correct answer: Bhupendrabhai Patel
- Vijay Rupani
- Anandiben Patel
- Harsh Sanghavi
Why: Bhupendrabhai Patel serves as the Chief Minister of Gujarat.
Which Article of the Constitution of India under the Directive Principles of State Policy explicitly directs that "The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India"?
- Correct answer: Article 44
- Article 40
- Article 39A
- Article 48
Why: Article 44 of the Constitution (Directive Principles) states that the State shall endeavour to secure for citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India.
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, "Marriage and divorce; infants and minors; adoption; wills, intestacy and succession; joint family and partition..." are enumerated under which legislative list?
- Correct answer: Concurrent List (List III, Entry 5)
- Union List (List I, Entry 5)
- State List (List II, Entry 5)
- Residuary Powers
Why: Under the Seventh Schedule, marriage, divorce, adoption, succession, and personal laws are listed under Entry 5 of List III (Concurrent List).
Which Indian State inherited a historic 1867 Portuguese Civil Code, making it the only state with a long-standing continuous civil code prior to new state-level UCC enactments?
- Correct answer: Goa
- Kerala
- Puducherry
- Sikkim
Why: Goa inherited and maintained the Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, applicable across all religious communities in the state.
In which landmark 1985 judgment did the Supreme Court of India first strongly advocate for the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code while adjudicating maintenance rights for divorced Muslim women under Section 125 CrPC?
- Correct answer: Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
- Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India
- Shayara Bano v. Union of India
- Daniel Latifi v. Union of India
Why: In Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985), the Supreme Court highlighted the necessity of implementing a Uniform Civil Code under Article 44.
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