Book 3 AMRIT · Mock 17 answer key
Mock 17: every answer explained.
Passage 1
Read the passage
The Supreme Court of India initiated formal constitutional scrutiny regarding the statutory validity of the Transgender Persons Protection of Rights Amendment Act, which introduced sweeping modifications to national gender recognition frameworks. Filed by prominent human rights defenders and community activists, the public interest petitions challenge legislative provisions that restructure legal identity criteria, arguing that the amendments infringe upon foundational constitutional guarantees. Central to the legal challenge is the statutory omission of the previously codified right to self-perceived gender identity. Petitioners contend that replacing self-determination with mandatory medical verification boards and rigid administrative categorization violates the tenets of personal autonomy, dignity, and privacy. Constitutional advocates submit that such statutory regression conflicts with settled apex court jurisprudence, which recognizes psychological gender identity as an intrinsic component of personal liberty under Article 21 and non-discrimination under Article 14 and Article 15. Furthermore, critics argue that narrowing statutory definitions to exclude diverse non-conforming identities undermines inclusive social protection frameworks. Defending the legislative enactment, union law officers maintain that rigorous verification standards and formal administrative oversight are necessary to prevent statutory misuse and ensure targeted welfare benefits reach intended recipients. The state contends that objective documentation safeguards statutory classifications across complex administrative domains. As a multi-judge bench evaluates the petitions, the judicial outcome will define the boundary between state regulatory control and individual self-determination in modern constitutional democracies.
Who currently serves as the Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment in the Government of India, overseeing transgender welfare policies and protective frameworks?
- Correct answer: Virendra Kumar Khatik
- Ramdas Athawale
- Pratima Bhoumik
- A. Narayanaswamy
Why: Virendra Kumar Khatik serves as the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment in the Government of India, overseeing transgender welfare schemes.
Which national portal was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to facilitate online applications for transgender identity certificates and identity cards?
- Correct answer: National Portal for Transgender Persons
- Garima Greh Portal
- SMILE Scheme Dashboard
- Ayushman Bharat Transgender Grid
Why: The National Portal for Transgender Persons was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to streamline identity card issuance.
Under the National Portal for Transgender Persons, what financial or welfare assistance scheme is implemented to provide shelter homes (Garima Greh) for transgender individuals?
- Correct answer: SMILE (Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise)
- PM-DAKSH Scheme
- NAMASTE Scheme
- AB-PMJAY Transgender Welfare Cover
Why: The SMILE scheme encompasses comprehensive welfare measures, including shelter homes known as "Garima Greh" for transgender individuals.
In which year was the original Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act enacted by the Parliament of India?
- Correct answer: 2019
- 2016
- 2021
- 2023
Why: The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act was formally enacted by Parliament in December 2019.
In which landmark 2014 Supreme Court judgment (National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India) did the apex court formally recognize transgender persons as the 'third gender' and uphold self- identified gender?
- Correct answer: NALSA v. Union of India (2014)
- Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)
- K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)
- Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017)
Why: NALSA v. Union of India (2014) is the landmark Supreme Court judgment that legally recognized transgender persons as the third gender and upheld self- identification.
Under Part III of the Constitution of India, which Article explicitly prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
- Correct answer: Article 15
- Article 14
- Article 16
- Article 21
Why: Article 15 of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Passage 2
Read the passage
A nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India initiated historical deliberations on referred review petitions arising from the Sabarimala adjudication, examining the delicate equilibrium between fundamental rights, denominational autonomy, and judicial intervention in faith-based customs. Grounded in broader constitutional questions, the review proceedings scrutinize the scope of Article 25 and Article 26 alongside the judicial doctrine of essential religious practices. At the core of the legal inquiry is the refinement of the essential religious practices doctrine, an evidentiary standard originally formulated in the Shirur Mutt case to distinguish core theological tenets from non-essential practices or superstitious additions. Critics argue that evaluating whether a ritual is indispensable forces secular judges into a clerical role, risking arbitrary judicial overreach. Conversely, civil rights advocates maintain that applying the test remains necessary to prevent customary traditions from insulating systemic gender discrimination or exclusion behind faith guarantees. Simultaneously, the bench is evaluating the constitutional boundaries of constitutional morality as an interpretive standard. In earlier determinations, constitutional morality served as a primary rationale to invalidate customary exclusions that impaired human dignity and equality guarantees under Article 14, Article 15, and Article 21. However, petitioners contend that employing subjective moral concepts overrides statutory protections granted to religious denominations to manage internal affairs. As the apex court harmonizes individual liberties with collective freedom of conscience, the pending constitutional determination will establish a lasting precedent governing state reform power, judicial review, and religious autonomy.
Which judicial body or bench composition in the Supreme Court of India is constitutionally mandated to hear references involving substantial questions of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution (requiring a minimum of five judges)?
- Correct answer: Constitution Bench
- Division Bench
- Vacation Bench
- Full Court
Why: A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court requires a minimum of five judges to hear cases involving substantial questions of constitutional interpretation.
Who currently heads or serves as the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court of India on constitutional benches evaluating religious freedom references?
- Correct answer: The Chief Justice of India (CJI)
- The Attorney General for India
- The Senior-Most Puisne Judge
- The Chairperson of the Law Commission
Why: The Chief Justice of India (CJI) heads the Supreme Court and constitutes Constitution Benches to examine complex constitutional questions.
In which year was the landmark Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt case) judgment delivered, formulating the essential religious practices test?
- Correct answer: 1954
- 1950
- 1962
- 1973
Why: The Shirur Mutt case (1954) formulated the essential religious practices doctrine to distinguish core theological tenets from secular or non-essential practices.
Under Article 26 of the Constitution of India, every religious denomination or any section thereof possesses freedom to manage what matters?
- Correct answer: Matters in respect of religious affairs
- Absolute acquisition of immovable state property
- Taxation of religious incomes
- Secular administration of civil courts
Why: Article 26 guarantees every religious denomination freedom to manage matters in respect of religious affairs.
Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, and health?
- Correct answer: Article 25
- Article 26
- Article 27
- Article 28
Why: Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice, and propagate religion.
In which landmark 2018 Supreme Court judgment (Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala) was the restriction on women aged 10 to 50 entering the Sabarimala Temple struck down?
- Correct answer: Sabarimala Temple Case (2018)
- Shayara Bano Case (2017)
- Triple Talaq Case (2017)
- Puttaswamy Privacy Case (2017)
Why: Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (2018) is the landmark Sabarimala Temple judgment striking down exclusionary entry practices for women.
Passage 3
Read the passage
The Presiding Officers of both Houses of Parliament formally rejected Opposition notices seeking the initiation of removal proceedings against the Chief Election Commissioner. Grounded in constitutional safeguards and statutory powers, the decisions by the Lok Sabha Speaker and the Rajya Sabha Chairman effectively halted the proposed parliamentary inquiry before a statutory investigation committee could be constituted under statutory framework provisions. The rejection follows the submission of formal notices signed by Opposition parliamentarians alleging institutional bias and procedural irregularities in electoral management. Constitutional provisions explicitly insulate the Chief Election Commissioner by guaranteeing that removal can occur only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge specifically, proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Under statutory guidelines governing such motions, the Presiding Officers possess discretionary authority to assess whether a prima facie case exists prior to admitting a motion. The Presiding Officers concluded that the allegations lacked concrete evidentiary support, failing to satisfy the high threshold mandated by constitutional law. Constitutional scholars highlight that statutory immunity shields the electoral machinery from partisan pressure, ensuring operational independence during political disputes. While Opposition leaders criticized the summary rejection as an administrative shield against accountability, legal experts emphasize that stringent preliminary thresholds prevent the destabilization of constitutional bodies. By upholding the high evidentiary bar required to trigger parliamentary inquiries, the determination reinforces institutional autonomy and safeguards the Chief Election Commissioner from arbitrary removal attempts.
Who currently serves as the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India heading the Election Commission?
- Correct answer: Rajiv Kumar (or incumbent CEC in 2026)
- Gyanesh Kumar
- Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
- Arun Goel
Why: Rajiv Kumar (or the incumbent CEC in 2026) serves as the Chief Election Commissioner of India heading the Election Commission.
Who currently serves as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, exercising statutory discretion over parliamentary motions and removal notices?
- Correct answer: Om Birla
- Rajendra Agrawal
- Jagdeep Dhankhar
- Harivansh Narayan Singh
Why: Om Birla serves as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, exercising parliamentary administrative authority and motion admissions.
Who holds the constitutional office of Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha ex-officio?
- Correct answer: The Vice-President of India
- The Prime Minister of India
- The Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha
- The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Why: The Vice-President of India holds the constitutional office of ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha under Article 64.
Under Part XV of the Constitution of India, which Articles govern the establishment, powers, and administrative structure of the Election Commission of India?
- Correct answer: Articles 324–329
- Articles 124–147
- Articles 280–281
- Articles 341–342
Why: Articles 324 to 329 under Part XV of the Constitution govern the superintendence, direction, and conduct of elections by the Election Commission.
In what year was the Election Commission of India originally established prior to the commencement of the Constitution?
- Correct answer: 1950 (January 25, 1950)
- 1947
- 1952
- 1956
Why: The Election Commission of India was established on January 25, 1950, celebrated annually as National Voters' Day.
Which landmark statutory enactment regulates the conditions of service, appointment procedure, and tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners following recent legislative revisions?
- Correct answer: Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023
- Representation of the People Act, 1951
- Election Commission (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991
- Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952
Why: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 governs their statutory appointment terms.
Passage 4
Read the passage
The United Nations Security Council failed to adopt a draft resolution aimed at securing commercial shipping and guaranteeing freedom of navigation in the strategic Strait of Hormuz after permanent members Russia and China exercised their veto power. Submitted by Gulf states and supported by Western allies, the proposed text sought to explicitly condemn attacks on international shipping and mandate an immediate cessation of maritime impediments across the vital energy transit corridor. The vote yielded eleven votes in favor, two against, and two abstentions, triggering an impasse that underscores deepening geopolitical fractures surrounding regional Middle Eastern security. Supporting diplomats argued that institutional inaction undermines international peace and risks severe volatility in global energy markets. Conversely, Russian and Chinese representatives asserted that the draft presented an asymmetrical narrative by failing to address the broader root causes of the regional conflict or military actions by opposing forces. Beijing and Moscow cautioned against utilizing Security Council mandates to securitize maritime chokepoints or provide legal authorization for unilateral military interventions. International legal scholars note that the failure to secure a statutory consensus highlights the limitations of multilateral mechanisms in resolving maritime security crises during high-stakes geopolitical confrontations. By blocking the measure, the double veto reflects persistent divisions over collective security enforcement, leaving global energy shipping lanes exposed to ongoing operational uncertainty.
Which country currently holds a permanent seat on the United Nations Security Council alongside Russia, China, the United States, and the United Kingdom?
- Correct answer: France
- India
- Germany
- Japan
Why: France is one of the five permanent members (P5) of the United Nations Security Council alongside the US, UK, Russia, and China.
Who currently serves as the Secretary-General of the United Nations, directing diplomatic efforts across regional security conflicts?
- Correct answer: António Guterres
- Volker Türk
- Dennis Francis
- Philemon Yang
Why: António Guterres serves as the Secretary-General of the United Nations, directing international diplomatic and peacekeeping efforts.
What is the narrow strategic body of water connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman, serving as a vital global energy transit chokepoint?
- Correct answer: Strait of Hormuz
- Strait of Malacca
- Bab-el-Mandeb Strait
- Bosporus Strait
Why: The Strait of Hormuz is the strategic petroleum transit chokepoint connecting the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
Under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter, the power to authorize binding enforcement actions and economic or military measures rests with which UN principal organ?
- Correct answer: United Nations Security Council
- UN General Assembly
- International Court of Justice
- UN Economic and Social Council
Why: Under Chapter VII of the UN Charter, the Security Council holds the authority to authorize binding enforcement and security measures.
In what year was the United Nations Charter officially signed at San Francisco, establishing the permanent membership and veto framework of the Security Council?
- Correct answer: 1945
- 1948
- 1950
- 1942
Why: The UN Charter was signed at the San Francisco Conference on June 26, 1945, establishing the United Nations Organization.
Under the Constitution of India, which Article under the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in international dealings?
- Correct answer: Article 51
- Article 48A
- Article 50
- Article 49
Why: Article 51 of the Directive Principles directs the State to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in international dealings.
Passage 5
Read the passage
In a milestone ruling establishing concrete economic valuation for unpaid household work, the Supreme Court of India recognized homemakers as essential contributors to national productivity and introduced a specialized compensation category titled "Loss of Domestic Care" within motor accident tort jurisprudence. Resolving motor accident compensation claims arising from the fatal injury of a non- earning spouse, the apex court established a standardized benchmark to monetize domestic labour, dismantling historical legal assumptions that treated household care work as non-economic or purely voluntary services. The judicial bench held that the sudden loss of a homemaker imposes severe material, psychological, and caregiving deficits on surviving dependents. Grounding its reasoning in non-discrimination principles, the court observed that visible economic achievements in formal employment depend fundamentally upon the invisible, unremunerated care work performed predominantly by women within domestic spheres. Under the newly formulated head, the court assigned a notional monthly financial benchmark for unpaid household services, stipulating that the baseline amount must be periodically enhanced to account for inflation and shifting economic indicators. Crucially, the bench clarified that where a deceased individual engaged in dual roles balancing paid employment with domestic responsibilities the caregiving compensation applies cumulatively alongside proven professional earnings. Legal scholars emphasize that institutionalizing a distinct statutory head for caregiving services elevates domestic labour from symbolic judicial appreciation into a binding legal right. By formalizing judicial valuation for unpaid household work, the ruling establishes a transformative precedent for tortious damages, insurance adjudication, and gender equity in social security law.
Which Union Ministry in India oversees motor vehicle accident compensation tribunals, road safety regulations, and transport jurisprudence?
- Correct answer: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
- Ministry of Law and Justice
- Ministry of Home Affairs
- Ministry of Finance
Why: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) oversees motor vehicle regulations, highway infrastructure, and transport compensation tribunals.
Who currently serves as the Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways in the Government of India?
- Correct answer: Nitin Gadkari
- Jyotiraditya Scindia
- Sarbananda Sonowal
- Piyush Goyal
Why: Nitin Gadkari serves as the Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways in the Government of India.
Which historical central enactment in India governs motor vehicle insurance, third-party liability, and compensation tribunals following major legislative updates?
- Correct answer: The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (as amended)
- The Fatal Accidents Act, 1855
- The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
- The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
Why: The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 is the primary central enactment governing vehicular traffic, third-party insurance, and motor accident claims.
In which landmark Supreme Court case (Arun Kumar Agrawal v. National Insurance Co. Ltd.) did the court first extensively elaborate on the economic value of a homemaker's labor?
- Correct answer: Arun Kumar Agrawal v. National Insurance Co. Ltd. (2010)
- Lata Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (2001)
- National Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Pranay Sethi (2017)
- Sarla Verma v. Delhi Transport Corporation (2009)
Why: Arun Kumar Agrawal v. National Insurance Co. Ltd. (2010) is a landmark ruling where the Supreme Court extensively quantified the economic value of a homemaker's labor.
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, "Mechanically propelled vehicles" and "Tolls" are enumerated under which legislative list?
- Correct answer: Concurrent List (List III, Entry 35)
- Union List (List I)
- State List (List II)
- Residuary Powers
Why: Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, mechanically propelled vehicles and tolls are enumerated under Entry 35 of List III (Concurrent List).
Under the Directive Principles of State Policy, which Article directs the State to secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women?
- Correct answer: Article 39(d)
- Article 41
- Article 42
- Article 43
Why: Article 39(d) of the Directive Principles directs the State to secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Passage 6
Read the passage
The integration of artificial intelligence into judicial workflows has triggered profound constitutional concerns regarding the opacity of "Black Box" algorithms and their threat to principles of natural justice. In complex deep-learning architectures, decision-making logic remains non-transparent and incomprehensible to human review. Applying unexplainable algorithms in judicial processes undermines fundamental legal guarantees, specifically the right to a reasoned order and procedural fairness, as litigants are deprived of understanding the rationale behind automated evaluations or challenging algorithmic bias. To reconcile technological modernization with constitutional values, the Supreme Court of India formulated draft regulations governing artificial intelligence deployment across court processes. Formulated by a specialized judicial committee, the regulatory framework establishes strict prohibitions against fully automated or algorithmic decision-making, stipulating that artificial intelligence can function strictly as an administrative and assistive tool rather than an adjudicative substitute. The draft regulations explicitly mandate human primacy, requiring human-in-the-loop oversight for all judicial functions and declaring that artificial intelligence outputs retain purely advisory status. Crucially, the regulatory framework directly addresses the hazards of opaque systems by prohibiting undisclosed or unexplainable artificial intelligence tools in high-risk applications affecting personal liberty or lawful rights. The draft bans algorithmic risk scoring for bail eligibility, recidivism predictions, or witness credibility assessments, while mandating full disclosure and human verification for any submitted AI-generated material. By enforcing strict accountability standards, the judiciary preserves procedural due process and constitutional integrity in digital adjudication.
What is the official name of the Supreme Court of India's committee or portal dedicated to artificial intelligence integration, legal translation, and court process automation?
- Correct answer: Supreme Court Centre for Research and Planning / SUPACE (Supreme Court Portal for Assistance in Court's Efficiency)
- e-Courts National Portal
- Digital Justice Integration Grid (DJIG)
- National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG)
Why: SUPACE (Supreme Court Portal for Assistance in Court's Efficiency) and related judicial committees drive AI integration and court automation in India.
Who currently serves as the Chairperson of the e-Committee of the Supreme Court of India driving digital court modernization?
- Correct answer: A senior Supreme Court Judge (e.g., Justice B.R. Gavai or designated SC judge)
- The Attorney General for India
- Secretary-General of the Supreme Court
- Union Minister of Law and Justice
Why: A senior Supreme Court Judge chairs the e-Committee of the Supreme Court to oversee judicial digitalization and technology deployment.
In which year was the e-Courts Mission Mode Project formally initiated by the Government of India to computerize district and subordinate courts?
- Correct answer: 2007
- 2011
- 2015
- 2019
Why: The e-Courts Mission Mode Project was formally launched by the Government of India in 2007 to computerize district and subordinate court networks.
Where is the permanent headquarters of the National Informatics Centre (NIC), which provides technology infrastructure for Indian courts and portals?
- Correct answer: New Delhi
- Bengaluru
- Hyderabad
- Pune
Why: The National Informatics Centre (NIC) is permanently headquartered in New Delhi, providing digital infrastructure across government and judicial portals.
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, "Administration of Justice; constitution and organisation of all courts..." is enumerated under which legislative list?
- Correct answer: State List (List II, Entry 3)
- Union List (List I, Entry 77)
- Concurrent List (List III, Entry 11A)
- Residuary Powers
Why: Under the Seventh Schedule, the administration of justice and constitution of all courts (except Supreme Court) is listed under Entry 3 of List II (State List).
Which foundational administrative principle of natural justice requires that "no person shall be condemned unheard" (audi alteram partem)?
- Correct answer: Rule of Fair Hearing
- Rule Against Bias (nemo judex in causa sua)
- Doctrine of Basic Structure
- Principle of Proportionality
Why: Audi alteram partem translates to the rule of fair hearing, ensuring no person is condemned unheard under natural justice principles.
Passage 7
Read the passage
The establishment of the Ghadar Party marked a radical departure in the Indian anti-colonial struggle, shifting from constitutional agitation toward armed revolutionary insurrection. Founded by South Asian immigrants, agricultural workers, and intellectuals residing along the Pacific coast of North America, the organization sought the complete overthrow of British colonial rule through coordinated rebellion and transnational political mobilization. Emerging from regional exile networks, key intellectual figures and political organizers consolidated fragmented immigrant associations into a unified revolutionary framework. The party established its headquarters and publishing press in California, launching a weekly radical publication to disseminate anti-imperial literature across global trade routes. Central to its strategy was awakening national consciousness among overseas workers and soldiers, urging them to return to the subcontinent to initiate armed uprisings within military garrisons. The party's doctrine rejected communal divisions, fostering an inclusive secular coalition focused entirely on national liberation. Despite facing intense international surveillance, diplomatic pressure from colonial authorities, and eventual infiltration that thwarted its planned insurrection attempts, the movement transformed transnational resistance networks. Historical scholars observe that the foundation of the Ghadar Party demonstrated the global dimension of anti-colonial resistance, establishing enduring precedents for international solidarity and radical political organization.
In which year was the Ghadar Party formally founded by expatriate Indian nationalists in Astoria, Oregon / San Francisco, USA?
- Correct answer: 1913
- 1905
- 1909
- 1915
Why: The Ghadar Party was formally founded in 1913 in the United States (Astoria, Oregon and San Francisco, California) by expatriate Indian revolutionaries.
Who served as the founding President and primary intellectual organizer of the Ghadar Party in California?
- Correct answer: Sohan Singh Bhakna (with Har Dayal as key ideologue)
- Lala Lajpat Rai
- Rash Behari Ghosh
- V.D. Savarkar
Why: Sohan Singh Bhakna served as the founding President of the Ghadar Party, with Har Dayal acting as its key ideologue and secretary.
What was the name of the prominent weekly journal published by the Ghadar Party from San Francisco that gave the movement its name?
- Correct answer: The Ghadar
- The Indian Sociologist
- Bande Mataram
- Jugantar
Why: The Ghadar was the radical weekly newspaper launched by the party from San Francisco to propagate anti-imperial resistance.
What was the name of the historic Japanese steamship chartered by Ghadarites in 1914 that attempted to transport Indian immigrants to Canada, triggering a dramatic imperial standoff?
- Correct answer: Komagata Maru
- SS Ghadar Express
- SS Maharaja
- SS Hindustan
Why: Komagata Maru was the Japanese steamship chartered in 1914 that transported Indian passengers to Vancouver, facing discriminatory colonial exclusion.
Who was the prominent Ghadar revolutionary leader executed by British authorities for his role in the Lahore Conspiracy Case following the failed 1915 uprising?
- Correct answer: Kartar Singh Sarabha
- Bhagat Singh
- Chandrashekhar Azad
- Ashfaqulla Khan
Why: Kartar Singh Sarabha was a prominent young Ghadar revolutionary executed by British authorities for his leading role in the 1915 Ghadar conspiracy.
Under the Constitution of India, which Article guarantees the fundamental right to "freedom of speech and expression" across the territory of India?
- Correct answer: Article 19(1)(a)
- Article 19(1)(c)
- Article 21
- Article 32
Why: Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression.
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, "Preventive detention for reasons connected with the Security of India..." is enumerated under which legislative list?
- Correct answer: Union List (List I, Entry 9)
- State List (List II)
- Concurrent List (List III)
- Residuary Powers
Why: Under the Seventh Schedule, preventive detention connected with the security of India is enumerated under Entry 9 of List I (Union List).
Passage 8
Read the passage
In a milestone determination reinforcing public accountability in anti-corruption institutions, the Supreme Court of India ruled that investigative arms operating under the Lokayukta cannot claim blanket exemption from disclosure obligations under transparency statutes. Dismissing appeals by state investigative units, the apex court invalidated executive notifications that sought to shield anti- corruption police establishments from information requests. The legal dispute centered on whether police establishments assisting the ombudsman could be categorized as intelligence or security organizations entitled to statutory exclusion from public queries. Reversing restrictive administrative interpretations, the top court held that bodies charged with investigating corruption and economic offenses perform purely investigative duties rather than sovereign security functions. Consequently, executive orders misclassifying investigative agencies to grant broad immunity exceed delegated legislative authority and violate statutory intent. Constitutional scholars highlight that the ruling establishes vital boundaries against administrative overreach, ensuring that institutions tasked with enforcing integrity remain subject to democratic oversight. The court emphasized that once investigations conclude and formal charges are submitted, withholding administrative records or sanction communications undermines due process. By subjecting anti-corruption bodies to public scrutiny, the decision fortifies transparency mechanisms and aligns ombudsman operations with democratic accountability.
Which landmark central enactment established the statutory ombudsman institution known as the Lokpal at the national level in India?
- Correct answer: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
- Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003
- Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
- Right to Information Act, 2005
Why: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 established the statutory national ombudsman institution known as the Lokpal.
Who currently serves as the Chairperson of the Lokpal of India, overseeing anti-corruption investigations at the apex level?
- Correct answer: Justice A.M. Khanwilkar (or current 2026 Lokpal Chairperson)
- Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose
- Justice Pradip Kumar Mohanty
- Justice R.V. Raveendran
Why: Justice A.M. Khanwilkar (or the incumbent 2026 Lokpal Chairperson) heads the apex anti-corruption ombudsman institution in India.
In which Indian State was the very first Lokayukta institution established under state statutory provisions following early administrative reforms?
- Correct answer: Maharashtra (1971)
- Karnataka (1984)
- Odisha (1983)
- Rajasthan (1973)
Why: Maharashtra was the pioneer state in India to establish a Lokayukta institution under the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 1971.
In what year was the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) originally established by executive resolution before receiving statutory status under the CVC Act, 2003?
- Correct answer: 1964
- 1971
- 1985
- 1991
Why: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was originally established by executive resolution in February 1964 before gaining statutory status in 2003.
Under Section 24 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, specified intelligence and security organizations established by the Central or State Governments are generally exempt from the provisions of the RTI Act, except in cases involving allegations of what?
- Correct answer: Corruption and human rights violations
- Financial bankruptcy
- Administrative delay in pensions
- Procedural taxation disputes
Why: Under Section 24 of the RTI Act, specified intelligence and security organizations are exempt except for allegations of corruption and human rights violations.
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, "Offences against laws with respect to any of the matters in the Union List" are enumerated under which legislative list?
- Correct answer: Union List (List I, Entry 93 / 94)
- State List (List II)
- Concurrent List (List III)
- Residuary Powers
Why: Under the Seventh Schedule, offences against laws with respect to matters in the Union List are enumerated under List I (Union List).
Which historical committee report on the prevention of corruption, chaired by K. Santhanam, recommended the establishment of the Central Vigilance Commission and state Lokayuktas?
- Correct answer: Santhanam Committee Report (1964)
- Sarkaria Commission Report
- Punchhi Commission Report
- Verma Committee Report
Why: The Santhanam Committee (Committee on Prevention of Corruption, 1964) recommended the creation of the Central Vigilance Commission.
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